Why here "...we ought to be following..."?

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whitecloud
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Why here "...we ought to be following..."?

Post by whitecloud »

In an article encouraging creativity, it goes as follows:

...Now 3M (Minnesota Manufacturing and Mining Company) encourages people to spend 15 percent of their work time just thinking and developing new ideas.
It is a strategy that more and more companies are employing and one that experts around the country say we ought to be following with our children, both at home and at school.

Why does the author use "we ought to be following" ? Could I use "we ought to follow"? Does it make a difference? :?

Many thanks in advance.
allansianadventurer
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Post by allansianadventurer »

Because then it would say "We ought to following". :roll:
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GiddyGad
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Re: Why here "...we ought to be following..."?

Post by GiddyGad »

whitecloud wrote:"It is a strategy that more and more companies are employing and one that experts around the country say we ought to be following with our children, both at home and at school."

Why does the author use "we ought to be following" ? Could I use "we ought to follow"? Does it make a difference? :?
"We ought to be following" because "it is a strategy that more and more companies are employing".

'be + Present Participle' is the way Continuous/Progressive Voice is formed.
Continuous/Progressive here denotes the process of the action whether in the Past or in the Present/Future.

It's worth mentioning that of the three sentences - "It is a strategy that more and more companies are employing", "experts around the country say", and "we ought to be following with our children, both at home and at school" - the last sentence is in the Past ('ought' is the Past form, though there's no Present form for the verb) whereas the previous two are in the Present.

It's because in the last sentence we have to do with Subjunctive mood, i.e. when the Past form doesn't denote the action in the Past but just (in this case) softens insistence to the degree of advice.

On the other hand, there's one more peculiarity in English, namely: definite Aspects (here Continuous/Progressive) tend to change the meanings of Modal verbs (here 'ought') from requirement to suggestion, compare: "He should come' and "He should be coming".

I think that in "We ought to be following" the verb 'ought' has a double meaning thus livening the text: it's a requirement and a suggestion at the same time. As a requirement it refers the action to the Present and nearest Future - something for us to do/something we are about to do; as a suggestion it denotes the action that is in the process at present - something quite possible.
whitecloud
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Post by whitecloud »

Thanks for your detailed explanation. Now I have more idea of this expression.
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